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Monday, 21 March 2016

I need some help with my idols.


"What do I imply then? That food offered to idols is anything, or that an idol is anything? No ... Eat whatever is sold in the meat market without raising any question on the ground of conscience. For “the earth is the Lord's, and the fullness thereof.” If one of the unbelievers invites you to dinner and you are disposed to go, eat whatever is set before you without raising any question on the ground of conscience." What is Jesus saying through Paul's letter? He is saying idols are a nothing and food sacrificed to a nothing is food - we are not guilty of idolatry by association. We can only be guilty of idolatry through intention. So, to paraphrase Jesus: eat and stop being silly. Why do I even mention this?

Well ...


My first point is made above: we are only guilty of worshiping an idol if we are actually worshiping the idol. We can't worship something by association.

Next, if anybody has actual factual evidence (note: this is different from speculation or opinion or quoting some random unreviewed source on Google) that Easter is the highjacked worship festival of a pagan fertility goddess named Eostre would you please send it to me? Please!? Everything I have read (and I admit it has been a lot!!) indicates this notion is pure trash. I suppose our first clue might be all the parallel claims that Easter is the highjacked worship festival of all the other pagan fertility goddesses such as Ishtar. A second clue might be that if this is a global church conspiracy why is the "Easter" naming limited to only Germanic languages? It does not make sense. It makes the church look silly; it makes Christ look ridiculous. Yet it persists - and Christians buy into it?

I know I quote Churchill all the time, but it is true, the best way to nullify the truth is to shroud it in a cloud of lies (and the internet has proven a very useful tool for this). So please send me the research.

In the meantime here is an article by Anthony McRoy (an actual historian) that at least should cause one to question the claim: Easter was Borrowed from a Pagan Holiday? (Christian History) Professor McRoy accounts for an error (or at the very least an unsubstantiated claim) made in a single reference in a single passing comment by a medieval church teacher Venerable Bede. Bede links Easter and Eostre through the ancient name of a month. If we care to examine the etymological evolution of our word “Easter” Bede's error is self-evident.

We must remain open to correction - but we must also remain wary of false teaching. I appreciate your help. Thanks.




Until we have facts can we, at least, refrain from perpetuating pagan error?